EDUMAN SUCCESS

ENGLISH LANGUAGE - PRACTICE ( NEW PATTERN)

SET - 1

Directions (1-5): Some questions have a sentence with two blanks followed by five pairs of words as choices. Others have a single blank followed by five words as choices. From the choices, select the word/pair of words that can best complete the given sentences and mark its number as your answer.

Q1. This oven helps in ________ the essential vitamins in the food and ________ cooking faster.

(a) saving . . . provides

(b) determining . . . accelerates

(d) retaining . . . makes

(e) controlling . . . allows

Q2. There can be no ________ that blind beliefs will have to be ________.

(a) denial . . . erased

(b) cause . . . removed

(d) dispute . . . forgotten

(e) doubt . . . restored

Q3. Romans generously sprinkled pepper on their food to ________ their wealth, as only the rich could ________ it.

(a) value . . . bear

(b) flaunt . . . afford

(d) squander . . . gain

(e) preserve . . . collect it

Q4. The ancient Greeks were known for their ________ health.

(a) elegant

(b) pristine

(d) enduring

(e) radiating

Q5. On view are ________ works by various artists from different cities.

(a) segregated

(b) amalgamated

(d) assorted

(e) displayed

Directions (6-15): In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately, Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical …(6)… of a customer’s savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, …(7)… loans and …(8)… in other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed. The Automated Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big …(9)… and credit and debit cards have created new financial spaces. …(10)… the bank branch has remained the bedrock of the banking system–after all a person needs a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may be about to change as technocrats now …(11)… cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks. This has the potential to make branches …(12)… Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for

India

since it can penetrate the countryside cheaply and …(13)…. The world over cell phones are spreading at a …(14)… rate and in India alone new cell phone connections are growing at the rate of six million a month a rate of customer …(15)… that no bank can dream of.

Q6.

(a) knowledge

(b) security

(d) confidentiality

(e) guarantee

Q7.

(a) negotiate

(b) advance

(d) disburse

(e) sanction

Q8.

(a) pursue

(b) interact

(d) enable

(e) engage

Q9.

(a) drawback

(b) hurdle

(d) luxury

(e) innovation

Q10.

(a) Despite

(b) Although

(d) Yet

(e) Until

Q11.

(a) view

(b) realise

(d) engineer

(e) assess

Q12.

(a) essential

(b) obsolete

(d) retreat

(e) expired

Q13.

(a) moderately

(b) occasionally

(d) indiscriminately

(e) effectively

Q14.

(a) phenomenal

(b) gradual

(d) competitive

(e) projected

Q15.

(a) discount

(b) base

(d) satisfaction

(e) relationship

SET – 2

Directions (1-15): Select the correct phrase from among the choices that completes the given sentence. Please note that more than one choice may fit in to make a syntactically correct sentence, but select the choice that is logical in the context of the sentence.

Q1. When something works well for us, we often __________.

(a) keep it to ourselves

(b) try to make it impossible

(d) want to share it with others

(e) try to make it difficult.

Q2. When science goes berserk, society loses its moorings, sanity begins to play truant and __________.

(a) result in neglect of basic human values

(b) moral decline sets in

(d) the significant elements take shape

(e) positive results begin to show

Q3. Talks and negotiations to resolve the dispute have taken place from time to time, but any attempt __________.

(a) to forge an agreement was based on a report by the fact finding committee

(b) to reject the agreement was not formulated

(d) to acquire dark shades has been inconsequential

(e) to solve the problem requires further investigation

Q4. Action is the glorious principle of life and the only one that saves man from __________.

(a) the use of faculties, physical or mental

(b) stagnation and unhappiness

(d) the prerequisites of happiness

(e) the use of his intellectual capacity

Q5. Some of the banned substances for which Indian sports persons have been tested positive are so highly priced that __________.

(a) no ordinary sportsperson would be able to buy them on his own

(b) any ordinary sportsperson would have bought them on his own

(d) the coaches encouraged their students to take them in the hope of a Dronacharya Award

(e) sportsperson and the coaches unhesitatingly use them in search of glory

Q6. If the IT revolution is expected to generate incomes at a very high rate, __________.

(a) the progress should be steady, though slow

(b) the willingness to do so will influence it

(d) expensive and arduous IT education packages must be introduced

(e) the initial investment requirements would be substantial

Q7. __________ is one way of ensuring that the public knows you are there.

(a) Advocating for the blissfulness of ignorance

(b) Stirring up controversies and making news

(d) Taking maximum benefit from a deal

(e) giving up you wealth

Q8. Through poetry, __________ can be drawn towards the imperishable beauties of the universe, with no cost and consternation.

(a) the attention of the lethargic and the inert

(b) the entire gamut of human passions and pathos

(d) the latent talent of writing

(e) that section of society which thinks in a negative way

Q9. When trying times come, __________ from those who have struggled and subdued the defiant destiny.

(a) one should learn a lesson

(b) one should take an example

(d) one should persevere and plod

(e) one should be grateful

Q10. The greater our knowledge increases, the more __________.

(a) affluence we acquire

(b) our wisdom grows

(d) we became aware of our ignorance

(e) crafty we become.

Q11. The death of the eminent leader __________ to all the citizens of the country.

(a) stands out in the memories

(b) caused enormous sadness and grief

(d) made the people admire his popularity

(e) made the people recall his sacrifice

Q12. The tendency to avoid problems and the emotional suffering inherent in them is the __________.

(a) outstanding agony in life

(b) major reason for calamity

(d) primary basis of failures in life

(e) best way of leading a life

Q13. __________ comes from our inability to own up the mess created by ourselves.

(a) Double talk

(b) Exasperation

(d) Vacillation

(e) Failure

Q14. The benefits of the technology will be limited by the fact that any technology used in a business will give returns __________.

(a) only when applied to an inefficient organisation

(b) only when applied to an efficient organisation

(d) only when it is laborious and intricate

(e) when pursued selflessly

Q15. One of the serious consequences of unethical politics is the __________ in our leaders and the system.

(a) convergence of the people

(b) dominating power of the people

(d) maintenance of the stability

(e) elevation of expectations

SET – 3

Directions (1-15): Mark the out-of-context sentence for your answer.

Q1. A.Where government resolve and action can really make a difference is in the area of investment.

B. The government’s mid-year review of the economy pares growth estimates for this fiscal down to less than 6%, from the upbeat 7.6% projected six months earlier.

C. So far, the government has focused on inclusion, which is not a bad thing.

D. The prediction may have dismayed markets, but this new show of realism should shake the government out of its cocoon of complacence.

(a) only A

(b) A and B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q2. A. Young adult literature assures teens that the world is capable of understanding and sympathizing, and that it can provide a safe space to explore the unknown, including the unknown parts of oneself.

B. But stories have always held the power to guide and influence their listeners and, moreover, teens often lack the tools or the cultural context to view works in a critical light.

C. As evidenced by studies as well as our own memories, teen girls are particularly vulnerable to self-doubt and self-esteem problems.

D. In this context, young adult novels can play a special role, with stories crafted specifically to validate their emotions and speak to young women’s concerns.

(a) only A

(b) only B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q3. A. In 1991 labourers were brought in from the villages of Tamil Nadu to work on the runway and once construction was completed, instead of returning to their villages they decided to stick around in the city of dreams and thus the slum “Annawadi” came to be.

B. Pulitzer Prize winning journalist, Katherine Boo spent three years in a Mumbai slum called “Annawadi” situated on the fringes of the city’s international airport.

C. Why anyone would want to live in “a sodden, snake-filled bit of brushland across the street from the international terminal” is a baffling question to many, but because rural poverty is bleaker than urban destitution, many rural migrants choose the latter.

D. Through the lives of several protagonists, the reader is able to get a glimpse into what life may be like in a Mumbai slum.

(a) only A

(b) A and B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q4. A. According to a 2010 study, fields of insect-resistant GM corn have an “area-wide suppression effect” on insects, benefiting neighbouring fields containing conventional corn varieties.

B. For example, modern techniques of genetic engineering-also known as biotechnology, recombinant DNA technology, or genetic modification (GM) – provide the tools to make old plants do spectacular new things.

C. It is a specialty of self-styled public-interest groups, whose agenda is often not to protect public health or the environment, but rather to oppose the research, products, or technology that they happen to dislike.

D. People everywhere are increasingly vulnerable to the use of what Nobel Prize-winning chemist Irving Langmuir dubbed “pathological science” – the “science of things that aren’t so” – to justify government regulation or other policies.

(a) only A

(b) only B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q5. A. In general, it is fair to say that these activities are performed more efficiently as a result.

B. Many activities that were previously performed “for free” such as home maintenance, and care for the sick and elderly, are now frequently outsourced and counted as economic output.

C. People whose skills are worth, say, $50 per hour spend more of their time earning $50, rather than performing chores “worth” $10 or $20 per hour.

D. But many individuals, most of the time, go online without any interest in buying something.

(a) only A

(b) A and B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q6. A. Developed countries, however, devote most of their research funds to the diseases from which their citizens suffer, and that seems likely to continue for the foreseeable future.

B. On which problems should we focus research in medicine and the biological sciences?

C. People in rich countries already can expect to live about 30 years longer that people in the poorest countries.

D. There is a strong argument for tackling the diseases that kill the most people – diseases like malaria, measles, and diarrhea, which kill malaria in developing countries, but very few in the developed world.

(a) only A

(b) A and B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q7. A. Drugs with serious adverse safety profiles are used to treat potentially fatal conditions – including various forms of cancer, inflammatory arthritis, and HIV – because they ultimately help more than they hurt.

B. Moreover, drug safety is a leading factor in determining how medicines are regulated.

C. Rather than assess a medicine’s safety in isolation, its adverse effects must be considered in relation to its efficacy.

D. In other words, a benefit-risk balance must be struck.

(a) only A

(b) only B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q8. A. And one of the things that struck me as I learned more and more about HIV was how strange epidemics were.

B. The word “Tipping Point,” for example, comes from the world of epidemiology.

C. If you talk to the people who study epidemics – epidemiologists – you realize that they have a strikingly different way of looking at the world.

D. Before I went to work for The New Yorker, I was a reporter for the Washington Post and I covered the AIDS epidemic.

(a) only A

(b) only B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q9. A. I guess what I’m saying is that I’m not sure that this book fits into any one category.

B. I profile three people who I think embody those types, and then I use the example of Paul Revere and his midnight ride to point out the subtle characteristics of this kind of social epidemic.

C. I think that word of mouth is something created by three very rare and special psychological types, whom I call Connectors, Mavens, and Salesmen.

D. There’s a whole section of the book devoted to explaining the phenomenon of word of mouth, for example.

(a) only A

(b) only B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q10. A. Much of the African surface is covered by savannas, or open grasslands, and by arid plains and deserts.

B. Africa is a continent of great size, almost 12 million square miles or about three times the size of the

United States

C. We have already noted the origins of humankind in East Africa where some of the earliest fossil remains of protohominids have been found.

D. Most of it lies in the tropics and, although we often think of Africa in terms of its rain forests, less than 10% of the continent is covered by tropical forests, and those are mostly in West Africa.

(a) only A

(b) A and B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q11. A. In these centuries, there were important advances in the aesthetics of nature, including the emergence of the concepts of disinterestedness and the picturesque, as well as the introduction of the idea of positive aesthetics.

B. Although environmental aesthetics has developed as a sub-field of philosophical aesthetics only in the last 40 years, it has historical roots in eighteenth and nineteenth-century aesthetics.

C. Thus, by the end of the eighteenth century, there were three clearly distinct ideas each focusing on different aspects of nature’s diverse and often contrasting moods.

D. These notions continue to play a role in contemporary work in environmental aesthetics, especially in the context of its relationship to environmentalism.

(a) only A

(b) A and B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q12. A. But the loss is not only theirs.

B. Unless disadvantaged racial groups are integrated into mainstream social institutions, they will continue to suffer from segregation and discrimination.

C. Current affirmative action debates have lost sight of the ideal of integration as a compelling moral and political goal.

D. It is high time that institutions of higher education forthrightly defend this ideal in its own right.

(a) only A

(b) A and B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q13. A. Not long ago the world’s main worry was that people had too little to eat.

B. In an age of plenty, individuals have the luxury of eating what they like.

C. Persuading children to eat vegetables is hardly a new struggle, nor would it seem to rank high on the list of global priorities.

D. Yet America, for all its libertarian ethos, is now worrying about how its citizens eat and how much exercise they take.

(a) only A

(b) only B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q14. A. Moreover, for most nations, government debt is projected to grow relative to income for years to come.

B. The popularity of austerity policies has waned over the past several years thanks to evidence that it may have been counterproductive.

C. It is important to remember that there is an absence of evidence that government with their own currencies are too indebted.

D. But many are still worried by the fact that, relative to national income, government debt is now larger in many countries than at any point since WWII.

(a) only A

(b) A and B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

Q15. A. A thorough understanding of what civilization and culture are requires knowledge of all the qualities that make up human nature and a full understanding of world history.

B. To be truly world history, an account of the past must not only retell what happened but must also relate events and people to each other.

C. It must inquire into causes and effects.

D. It must try to discern false hood in the old records, such as attempts of kings to make themselves look better than they really were.

(a) only A

(b) only B

(d) only D

(e) None of the above

SET – 4

Directions (1-15): Four sentences are given with a blank in each. Five words are also given. The blank in each sentence can be filled by one or more of the four words given. Similarly, each word given in the choices can go into any number of sentences. Identify the number of sentences each word can go into and mark as your answer the maximum number of sentences any word can go into.

Q1. A. India and

Russia

__________ an excellent bilateral relationship.

B. Due to a crash in the overseas market, __________ market in

India

was also badly affected.

C. According to the law, women are also entitled to a __________ in the ancestral property.

D. Every job has its own __________ of problems.

(a) stock

(b) portion

(d) share

(e) claim

Q2. A. The Government has introduced several __________ recovery schemes to make sick industrial units pay.

B. The Indian cricket team has organized an __________ match for earthquake victims.

C. Being located in a backward area the college receives a/an __________ from the Education Department.

D. The Research Scholars received a/an __________ from the University to develop their project.

(a) benefit

(b) aid

(d) loan

(e) help

Q3. A. The little girl has a __________ face.

B. It is __________ obvious that he was lying.

C. He was sitting __________ on his illegal earnings, while his colleagues were struggling to make both ends meet.

D. He did not have a __________ idea about the matter.

(a) lovely

(b) clear

(d) faint

(e) pretty

Q4. A. He does not __________ any ill feelings against anyone.

B. A __________ was appointed to take care of his ailing mother.

C. The foster mother tried to __________ the infant with great care.

D. A lot of patience is required to __________ an aged person.

(a) nature

(b) maid

(d) nurse

(e) feed

Q5. A. The policeman on __________ nabbed the thieves.

B. I cannot argue with you any more, I am dead __________.

C. The mother had to __________ the stubborn child.

D. He is so invincible that none can __________ him.

(a) convinced

(b) beat

(d) knock

(e) console

Q6. A. In the scuffle, the innocent man received a hard __________.

B. It is immodest for a man to __________ his own trumped.

C. His sudden death came as a hard __________ to his family.

D. The garden was in full __________ during spring

(a) bloom

(b) shock

(d) jolt

(e) time

Q7. A. The weather being unconducive, we had to __________ the journey.

B. He decided to __________ from his partner and set up his own establishment.

C. Being an early riser, he wakes up at the __________ of dawn.

D. There is a __________ on the bottle.

(a) break

(b) crack

(d) separate

(e) stop

Q8. A. The innocent lady could not see through his evil __________.

B. The intricate __________ on this fabric, makes it more attractive.

C. He employed a famous architect to __________ his house.

D. The psychologist observed a change in the child’s behaviour __________.

(a) intention

(b) pattern

(d) model

(e) build

Q9. A. If the company has made a project, it is entirely __________ to the sincere efforts of the recovery team.

B. The train is __________ to arrive early in the morning.

C. Based on his appraisal, he is __________ for a promotion shortly.

D. The advance, which was __________ to me, was paid well on time.

(a) expected

(b) due

(d) scheduled

(e) offered

Q10. A. The __________ of interest on Public Provident Fund has been lowered in the recent budget.

B. We can __________ him as a good orator.

C. The __________ of every commodity at the Super Market, is fixed.

D. He had to pay a heavy __________ for his mistake.

(a) price

(b) rate

(d) sum

(e) fine

Q11. A. The rich miser had never any money to __________ for the poor.

B. I like to play badminton during my __________ time.

C. The government has decided to __________ the physically handicapped people from paying tax.

D. You should __________ no effort, in order to achieve your target.

(a) free

(b) offer

(d) spare

(e) leave

Q12. A. He built a palatial house with his __________ gotten wealth.

B. Many children were taken __________ after consuming adulterated sweets.

C. The __________ feeling, which developed over the years, between the couple, culminated in a divorce.

D. The superstitious villagers considered the poor widow as a/an __________ omen.

(a) bad

(b) sick

(d) evil

(e) negative

Q13. A. Hunting of __________ animals is prohibited by the forest department.

B. The participating teams were asked to abide by the rules of the __________.

C. The trickster felt snubbed when he was beaten at his own __________.

D. All the actors who enacted the __________ were felicitated by the chief guest.

(a) game

(b) play

(d) performance

(e) trick

Q14. A. The mango tree did not __________ any fruit this year.

B. The students were asked to __________ in mind the instructions given by the examiner.

C. The two sisters, do not __________ any resemblance to each other.

D. Unable to __________ the stress and strain involved in his profession, he decided to take a long holiday.

(a) endure

(b) keep

(d) bear

(e) withstand

Q15. A. West Indies is one of the few cricketing nations which was able to __________ genuine fast bowlers.

B. The farmer made a lot of profit by selling his __________ at the market.

C. Apart from all his other talents, he could also __________ a few documentaries pertaining to Indian Culture.

D. The traffic Police asked him to __________ his driving license.

(a) yield

(b) produce

(d) procure

(e) show

SET – 5

Directions (1-15): Mark the out-of-context sentence for your answer.

Q1. A. It came as something of a surprise when scientists determined that human beings share almost 99 percent of their genetic material with chimpanzees.

B. Prehuman bipeds predated stone tools, which appeared approximately 2.5 million year ago.

C. Despite all the is held in common, however, the differences are crucial and allow humans to be allotted their won genus and species, Homo sapiens.

D. This led one scientific journalist to refer to humans as “the third chimpanzee.”

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q2. A. This is the country where the leader of the ruling party, the speaker of the lower house of parliament, at least three chief ministers, and a number of sports and business icons are women.

B. It is also a country where a generation of newly empowered young women are going out to work in large number than ever before.

C. It’s early days yet, but one hopes these are the first stirrings of change.

D. Trust Law, a news service run by Thomson Reuters, has ranked

India

as the worst G20 country in which to be a woman.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q3. A. For no apparent reason you cannot help yourself from humming or singing a tune by Lady Gaga or Coldplay, or horror upon horrors, the latest American Idol reject.

B. Songs that get stuck in your head and go round and round, sometimes for days, sometimes for months.

C. Some people call them earworms.

D. It there was nothing unique about them they would be swamped by all the other memories that sound similar too.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q4. A. Nasa could design another rover, equipped with all sorts of life-hunting instrumentation, only to find it is taking the wrong measurements with the wrong detectors.

B. The reason scientists favour a sample return mission is that they do not know exactly what they are looking for.

C. Lunar rocks and soil were sealed in bags and only opened in airtight laboratories.

D. Martian life, for example, could come in many different guises and using equipment designed to detect life on Earth, may not pick it up on Mars.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q5. A. I am particularly optimistic about the potential for technological innovation to improve the lives of the poorest people in the world.

B. Companies are then willing to make the investments required to build new systems, and customers are able to accept the transition costs of adopting new behaviours.

C. But I believe that a realistic appraisal of the human condition compels an optimistic worldview.

D. Usually, “optimism” and “realism” are used to describe two different outlooks on life.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q6. A. New technologies of various kinds, together with globalization, are powerfully affecting the range of employment options for individuals in advanced and developing countries alike – and at various levels of education.

B. From recent research, we have learned a number of interesting things about how the evolution of economic structure affects employment.

C. How, then, should policymakers confront the new and difficult challenges for employment especially in developed economies?

D. Technological innovations are not only reducing the number of routine jobs, but also causing changes in global supply chains and networks that result in the relocation of routine jobs – and, increasingly, non-routine jobs at multiple skill levels – in the tradable sector of many economies.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q7. A. Beyond a certain point, this issue cannot be pursued independently of metaphysical issues about realism.

B. What this means is that the judgment of taste is based on a feeling of pleasure or displeasure.

C. The first necessary condition of judgment of taste is that it is essentially subjective.

D. It is this that distinguishes a judgment of taste from an empirical judgment.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q8. A. An essential ambiguity characterizes the experience of the audience.

B. The metaphysical aspects of existentialist aesthetics imply a certain theory of the audience.

C. The ambiguity of aesthetic experience is linked directly to the above mentioned theory of the negativity of the expressive means.

D. The genuine artist creates a new virtual world that expresses a coherent, idiosyncratic perspective on the world shared by all.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q9. A. The failure to distinguish these questions is the source of serious philosophical confusions.

B. This may or may not turn out to be correct.

C. A natural way of thinking would seem to be that mind-body dualism is a “survival-friendly” metaphysical view, whereas materialism is inimical to survival.

D. The possibility of survival after death cannot be considered without taking into account the nature of the human person.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q10. A. The pain you feel when you sprain your ankle is taken to cause you to open the freezer in search of an ice pack.

B. Mind-world interaction is taken for granted in everyday experience and in scientific practice.

C. Mental causation – the mind’s causal interaction with the world, and in particular, its influence on behaviour – is central to our conception of ourselves as agents.

D. It might seem equally obvious that the mind’s causal role in producing behaviour is also a matter for science to settle.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q11. A. The ability of such cells to morph into any other sort of cell suggested that worn-out or damaged tissues might be repaired, and diseases thus treated – a technique that has come to be known as regenerative medicine.

B. Fourteen years ago James Thomson of the University of Wisconsin isolated stem cells from human embryos.

C. However, experimental treatments fail far more often than they succeed.

D. It was an exciting moment.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q12. A. Among the many new gadgets unveiled at the recent Consumer Electronics Show in Las Vegas was a pair of smartphones able to exchange data using light.

B. Using light offers the possibility of breaking out of this conundrum by exploiting a completely different part of the electromagnetic spectrum, one that is already ubiquitous because it is used for another purpose: illumination.

C. These phones, as yet only prototypes from Casio, a Japanese firm, transmit digital signals by varying the intensity of the light given off from their screens.

D. The flickering is so slight that it is imperceptible to the human eye, but the camera on another phone can detect it at a distance of up to ten metres.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q13. A. At the recent Consumer Electronics Show in Las Vegas, talk of Ultra HD was on everyone’s lips.

B. The recent floor of 3D films largely failed that test.

C. The development most are hoping will do the trick is a display technology known as Ultra High-Definition that offers four times the resolution of today’s 1,080p HDTV sets.

D. Having seen interest in 3D television fizzle, consumer-electronics firms are desperate to find some other blockbuster product that will get customers back into big-box stores.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q14. A. The rapid shrinkage of Arctic ice cover is one of the most dramatic changes in nature currently occurring anywhere on the planet, with profound environmental and economic implications.

B. There are several oil-related environmental risks specific to the Arctic Ocean.

C. The once fabled northeast and northwest passages will reduce shipping times and costs by as much as half, bringing China and Japan much closer to Europe and North America’s east coast.

D. We stand to lose one of the Earth’s largest and most significant ecosystems.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q15. A. For better or worse, youth brands have lost the fear of alienating people who are not the core demographic.

B. The ‘91and later generations have grown up with a far wider and more global set of influences.

C. Or at least expect them to take a lot more ribbing without complaining.

D. These ads are early signs of the clash between the pre and post liberalization generations.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

SET – 6

Directions (1-15): Mark the out-of-context sentence for your answer.

Q1. A. It came as something of a surprise when scientists determined that human beings share almost 99 percent of their genetic material with chimpanzees.

B. Prehuman bipeds predated stone tools, which appeared approximately 2.5 million year ago.

C. Despite all the is held in common, however, the differences are crucial and allow humans to be allotted their won genus and species, Homo sapiens.

D. This led one scientific journalist to refer to humans as “the third chimpanzee.”

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q2. A. This is the country where the leader of the ruling party, the speaker of the lower house of parliament, at least three chief ministers, and a number of sports and business icons are women.

B. It is also a country where a generation of newly empowered young women are going out to work in large number than ever before.

C. It’s early days yet, but one hopes these are the first stirrings of change.

D. Trust Law, a news service run by Thomson Reuters, has ranked

India

as the worst G20 country in which to be a woman.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q3. A. For no apparent reason you cannot help yourself from humming or singing a tune by Lady Gaga or Coldplay, or horror upon horrors, the latest American Idol reject.

B. Songs that get stuck in your head and go round and round, sometimes for days, sometimes for months.

C. Some people call them earworms.

D. It there was nothing unique about them they would be swamped by all the other memories that sound similar too.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q4. A. Nasa could design another rover, equipped with all sorts of life-hunting instrumentation, only to find it is taking the wrong measurements with the wrong detectors.

B. The reason scientists favour a sample return mission is that they do not know exactly what they are looking for.

C. Lunar rocks and soil were sealed in bags and only opened in airtight laboratories.

D. Martian life, for example, could come in many different guises and using equipment designed to detect life on Earth, may not pick it up on Mars.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q5. A. I am particularly optimistic about the potential for technological innovation to improve the lives of the poorest people in the world.

B. Companies are then willing to make the investments required to build new systems, and customers are able to accept the transition costs of adopting new behaviours.

C. But I believe that a realistic appraisal of the human condition compels an optimistic worldview.

D. Usually, “optimism” and “realism” are used to describe two different outlooks on life.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

B. From recent research, we have learned a number of interesting things about how the evolution of economic structure affects employment.

C. How, then, should policymakers confront the new and difficult challenges for employment especially in developed economies?

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q7. A. Beyond a certain point, this issue cannot be pursued independently of metaphysical issues about realism.

B. What this means is that the judgment of taste is based on a feeling of pleasure or displeasure.

C. The first necessary condition of judgment of taste is that it is essentially subjective.

D. It is this that distinguishes a judgment of taste from an empirical judgment.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q8. A. An essential ambiguity characterizes the experience of the audience.

B. The metaphysical aspects of existentialist aesthetics imply a certain theory of the audience.

C. The ambiguity of aesthetic experience is linked directly to the above mentioned theory of the negativity of the expressive means.

D. The genuine artist creates a new virtual world that expresses a coherent, idiosyncratic perspective on the world shared by all.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q9. A. The failure to distinguish these questions is the source of serious philosophical confusions.

B. This may or may not turn out to be correct.

C. A natural way of thinking would seem to be that mind-body dualism is a “survival-friendly” metaphysical view, whereas materialism is inimical to survival.

D. The possibility of survival after death cannot be considered without taking into account the nature of the human person.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q10. A. The pain you feel when you sprain your ankle is taken to cause you to open the freezer in search of an ice pack.

B. Mind-world interaction is taken for granted in everyday experience and in scientific practice.

C. Mental causation – the mind’s causal interaction with the world, and in particular, its influence on behaviour – is central to our conception of ourselves as agents.

D. It might seem equally obvious that the mind’s causal role in producing behaviour is also a matter for science to settle.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

B. Fourteen years ago James Thomson of the University of Wisconsin isolated stem cells from human embryos.

C. However, experimental treatments fail far more often than they succeed.

D. It was an exciting moment.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q12. A. Among the many new gadgets unveiled at the recent Consumer Electronics Show in Las Vegas was a pair of smartphones able to exchange data using light.

C. These phones, as yet only prototypes from Casio, a Japanese firm, transmit digital signals by varying the intensity of the light given off from their screens.

D. The flickering is so slight that it is imperceptible to the human eye, but the camera on another phone can detect it at a distance of up to ten metres.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q13. A. At the recent Consumer Electronics Show in Las Vegas, talk of Ultra HD was on everyone’s lips.

B. The recent floor of 3D films largely failed that test.

C. The development most are hoping will do the trick is a display technology known as Ultra High-Definition that offers four times the resolution of today’s 1,080p HDTV sets.

D. Having seen interest in 3D television fizzle, consumer-electronics firms are desperate to find some other blockbuster product that will get customers back into big-box stores.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q14. A. The rapid shrinkage of Arctic ice cover is one of the most dramatic changes in nature currently occurring anywhere on the planet, with profound environmental and economic implications.

B. There are several oil-related environmental risks specific to the Arctic Ocean.

C. The once fabled northeast and northwest passages will reduce shipping times and costs by as much as half, bringing China and Japan much closer to Europe and North America’s east coast.

D. We stand to lose one of the Earth’s largest and most significant ecosystems.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

Q15. A. For better or worse, youth brands have lost the fear of alienating people who are not the core demographic.

B. The ‘91and later generations have grown up with a far wider and more global set of influences.

C. Or at least expect them to take a lot more ribbing without complaining.

D. These ads are early signs of the clash between the pre and post liberalization generations.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(d) Only D

(e) None of the above

SET – 7

Directions (1-15): For each of the words given below, a contextual usage is provided. From the alternatives given, pick the word that is the most inappropriate as a substitute in the given context and mark its number as your answer.

Q1. Venom: The venom in his voice was unmistakable.

(a) rancour

(b) abhorrence

(d) malevolence

(e) bitterness

Q2. Acquittal: His acquittal in spite of the incriminating evidence surprised all of us.

(a) dismissal

(b) vindication

(d) deliverance

(e) exculpation

Q3. Presage: The phenomenal growth of this chain of stores presaged globalization and was a glitzy part of it.

(a) supported

(b) signaled

(d) portended

(e) threatened

Q4. Unassailable: Its brand image is unassailable.

(a) impregnable

(b) invincible

(d) invisible

(e) secure

Q5. Abjure: I have decided to abjure smoking.

(a) relinquish

(b) renounce

(d) discontinue

(e) abandon

Q6. Despondent: After their trauma, they were exhausted and despondent.

(a) doleful

(b) morose

(d) crestfallen

(e) dismal

Q7. Fitfully: She felt groggy in the morning as she had slept fitfully the previous night.

(a) faintly

(b) intermittently

(d) discontinuously

(e) erratically

Q8. Incredulous: He was incredulous regarding the potential benefits of the tiny gadget.

(a) cynical

(b) disbelieving

(d) skeptical

(e) dubious

Q9. Misconstrue: His introverted behaviour is often misconstrued as haughtiness.

(a) erred

(b) misinterpreted

(d) confused

(e) miscalculated

Q10. Embellish: On the occasion of the festival, the deity was embellished with jewels of many types.

(a) adorned

(b) beautified

(d) decorated

(e) beatified

Q11. Paean: The student leader ended his speech singing paeans about the initiatives adopted by the new principal.

(a) panegyric

(b) accolades

(d) anathema

(e) tribute

Q12. Sprightly: Her sprightly disposition camouflaged her illness.

(a) voracious

(b) vivacious

(d) perky

(e) frisky

Q13. Ubiquitous: The ubiquitous internet cafes have helped increase the level of its accessibility to the common man.

(a) pervasive

(b) dominating

(d) extensive

(e) rife

Q14. Tyro: His subtle discomfort in front of the camera reveals that he is a tyro in this field.

(a) novice

(b) veteran

(d) neophyte

(e) trainee

Q15. Variegated: The variegated religions and the multitude of cultures contribute to the rich spiritual heritage of our country.

(a) kaleidoscopic

(b) psychedelic

(d) diversified

(e) colourful

SET – 8

Q1. Zany: The film succeeded in spite of a zany plot.

(a) bizarre

(b) weak

(d) ludicrous

(e) peculiar

Q2. Adjunct: A healthy diet as an adjunct to a regular exercise regimen helps one enjoy good health.

(a) supplement

(b) add on

(d) accessory

(e) complement

Q3. Lyrical: The lyrical lilt in her voice attracted the listeners.

(a) melodious

(b) rhapsodic

(d) passionate

(e) sumptuous

Q4. Proscribe: At a point of time drinking liquor was completely proscribed.

(a) forbidden

(b) discouraged

(d) disallowed

(e) condemned

Q5. Venal: It is wrong to presume that the entire police force is venal.

(a) corrupt

(b) rapacious

(d) evil

(e) crooked

Q6. Vanity: There are childlike men in every society who require certain amount of experience of enjoyment to see through the vanity of it and then renunciation will come to them.

(a) pretension

(b) ostentation

(d) avant-garde

(e) triviality

Q7. Hem: A poor man’s life is hemmed in and bound down by tremendous spiritual and ethical laws for which he has no use.

(a) restricted

(b) repressed

(d) immured

(e) encompassed

Q8. Exhortation: The minister’s exhortation to the small investors to return to the stock market is timely and ought to be welcomed.

(a) plea

(b) persuasion

(d) urging

(e) goading

Q9. Manoeuvre: It is becoming increasingly clear that the ruling party is in thrall to its own devious manoeuvres.

(a) schemes

(b) plots

(d) skills

(e) ploys

Q10. Pander: By refusing to come against the political machinations of the ruling party, the opposition party is clearly pandering to the majoritarian political temptation and abdicating its responsibility to defend the pluralist values.

(a) indulging in

(b) accommodating

(d) following

(e) gratifying

Q11. Momentous: The problems in

India

are more complicated, more momentous than those in any other country.

(a) pivotal

(b) consequential

(d) transient

(e) critical

Q12. Intangible: Certain intangible variables like organizational culture, organizational climate etc., too can affect a person’s productivity and job efficiency.

(a) incorporeal

(b) unfelt

(d) abstract

(e) indefinable

Q13. Rebuff: The party president virtually rebuffed the party’s state unit president.

(a) snubbed

(b) repudiated

(d) cold shouldered

(e) pampered

Q14. Abrogation: The party supported the abrogation of certain clauses of the constitution.

(a) repudiation

(b) revocation

(d) desiccation

(e) cancellation

Q15. Impinge: This incident was the one that impinged on the right of the people to choose their religion.

(a) infringed

(b) intruded

(d) trespassed

(e) invaded

SET – 9

Directions (1-15): In each of the following questions, five statements are given. Four of them are related in some way. Identify the ‘odd one’ and mark its number as your answer.

Q1.

(a) Soft drink concentrates are always preferred by children.

(b) Apart from quenching thirst, coconut water is also good for health.

(d) Coke and Pepsi are carbonated drinks.

(e) Thums-up is banned in some parts of

India

Q2.

(a) Dushera is celebrated with a lot of fervor particularly in Bengal.

(b) People, irrespective of their age rejoice on Diwali.

(d) Sankranthi is considered to be a harvest festival.

(e) Holi is a festival of colours.

Q3.

(a) Mars is a planet on which scientists say life is possible.

(b) Earth derives its natural light from the sun.

(d) The planet nearest to earth is Venus.

(e) A rainbow is one of the beautiful sights.

Q4.

(a) Astronomy is one of the ancient sciences known to man.

(b) Paleontology is the study of life in the geological past.

(d) Moon is a satellite of the earth.

(e) Psychology is the scientific study of human behaviour.

Q5.

(a) Shakespeare was a famous exponent of the sonnet.

(b) Paradise lost is one of the most famous epics in English literature.

(d) Practical criticism is sometimes distinguished into impressionistic criticism.

(e) William Wordsworth is a nature poet.

Q6.

(a) Goddess Saraswati loves playing on the Veena.

(b) Lord Krishna enchanted Gopikas with his Flute.

(d) Sage Narada always carries Tanpura.

(e) Ravana is known to be an expert player of Rudhraveena.

Q7.

(a) Gandhiji’s autobiography is ‘My experiments with Truth’.

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru’s patriotism is seen in ‘Discovery of India’.

India

is seen in his book ‘Unhappy India’.

(d) Hitler’s ‘Mein-Kamph’ was looked upon as a bible by the Nazis.

(e) Shakespeare is the most famous playwright of English literature.

Q8.

(a) Ujjain, a holy place has the Mahakaleshwar Temple.

(b) The Kanha National Park is the biggest one in the state.

(d) Cave temples and Kailashnath temple at Ellora are famous for their caves and paintings.

(e) To many, Tirupathi, is not only a holy place but also a tourist place of attraction.

Q9.

(a) I have nothing to offer but blood, sweat and tears, said Winston Churchill.

(b) I know nothing but the fact of my ignorance, said Socrates.

(d) Just as I would not like to be a slave, so I would not like to be a master said Abraham Lincoln.

(e) Martin Luther King Jr. said that Americans will overcome oppression and will establish the rule of justice.

Q10.

(a) Vande Mataram was the source of inspiration to the people in their struggle for freedom.

(b) The Sarnath Lion of Asoka is preserved in the Sarnath Museum.

(d) The Indian calendar is based on Saka era with Chaitra as the first month and a normal year of 365 days.

(e) Like the tower of Pisa even Kutub-Minar is leaning say experts.

Q11.

(a) Paddy and coconut are the food and cash crops of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli has no major or medium irrigation power projects.

(d) Coconut is the only major crop of Lakshadweep.

(e) Hindi, Punjabi and Urdu are the principal languages of Delhi.

Q12.

(a) Washington D.C is the capital of

United States of America

(b) Zimbabwe’s main centre of business is in Harare.

Zambia

(d) Zaire has Kinshasa as its capital.

(e) Cairo is the capital of

Egypt

and is a main business centre.

Q13.

(a) My daughter wants to travel by flight.

(b) My son wants to drive a car.

(d) I went to Vijayawada by train.

(e) I hate to travel by a bus.

Q14.

(a) My aunt prefers to have a plate of fried rice.

(b) My father brought a bag of Basmati rice.

(d) Small children are generally given rice and curds.

(e) We ate sticky rice in the

Thailand

restaurant and relished it.

Q15.

(a) Some people enjoy watching cricket.

(b) Others take pride in playing chess.

(d) My friend struggled hard to get selected in the hockey team.

(e) Children love to play outdoor games.

SET – 10

Directions (1-15): Four sentences are given with a blank in each. Five words are also given. The blank in each sentence can be filled by one or more words. Similarly, each word given in the choices can go into any number of sentences. Identify the number of sentences each word can go into and mark as your answer the maximum number of sentences any word can go into.

Q1. A. The little boy was pampered by his grandparents, who catered to his every __________.

B. “Your __________ is my command”, said the genie to the prince.

C. I __________ you could understand me better.

D. Being an easygoing person, she behaves according to her own __________ and fancy.

(a) whim

(b) demand

(d) hope

(e) need

Q2. A. I could finish my work __________ ahead of time.

B. He is __________ off when compared to his other siblings.

C. By his attitude, I could make out that he does not mean __________.

D. She is __________ dressed when compared to other women in the gathering.

(a) much

(b) better

(d) good

(e) harm

Q3. A. For many years

India

was __________ in a tricky situation, whether to go in for a nuclear weapon or not.

B. The marathon innings of the batsman came to an end when he was finally __________ by the same bowler who troubled him the most.

C. The notorious burglar was finally __________ by the cops.

D. I was __________ unaware when my photograph was clicked.

(a) held

(b) seized

(d) caught

(e) trapped

Q4. A. The management took no __________ of the problems pertaining to the workers.

B. The class teacher was called to __________ for the dismal performance of the students in the examination.

C. Many young cricket fans __________ Tendulkar as a hero.

D. The principal promised the students that he would __________ their demands.

(a) consider

(b) explain

(d) estimate

(e) notice

Q5. A. The jail authorities have decided to __________ some of the prisoners, who possessed a clean record, as a gesture of good will.

B. He decided to __________ himself of all responsibilities by handing over charge to his successor.

C. Since he is a spendthrift he is very __________ in spending money.

D. Government aided schools are now offering to teach computer course to students __________ of charge.

(a) devoid

(b) release

(d) free

(e) parole

Q6. A. The millionaire has __________ Rs. 10,00,000 for this priceless artifact.

B. In a/an __________ to rescue the child who was caught in fire, she sustained burns.

C. I went to the railway station to __________ goodbye to my friend.

D. I was asked to __________ a price by the auctioneer.

(a) quoted

(b) attempt

(d) say

(e) spend

Q7. A. He __________ many spine-chilling anecdotes to us.

B. The law extends to several __________ groups.

C. This person is not __________ to me in any way, he is a trickster.

D. The two groups are __________ to each other.

(a) allied

(b) connected

(d) recounted

(e) narrated

Q8. A. Can you please __________ the bell?

B. The words spoken by him still __________ in my ears.

C. Mahatma Gandhi was the __________ leader of the Non-Cooperation movement.

D. I shall give you a __________ after reaching home.

(a) sound

(b) ring

(d) call

(e) sell

Q9. A. Many students still __________ around the college, even after the classes are over.

B. Every citizen of

India

should __________ his head in shame at the brutal killings in the name of religion.

C. There is ample space in the wardrobe for you to __________ your clothes.

D. “__________ the perpetrators of the crime!” shouted the angry mob.

(a) execute

(b) loiter

(d) bend

(e) store

Q10. A. This book pertaining to fine arts is beyond a __________ man’s comprehension.

B. I helped mother to __________ the table for breakfast.

C. In her hour of distress she had to __________ her hopes on her relatives to help her.

D. He requested me to __________ some money.

(a) pin

(b) lay

(d) ordinary

(e) common

Q11. A. My friends tried to cheer me up, as I was in a depressed __________ of mind.

B. All the senior leaders of the party have assembled together to __________ a new election strategy.

C. He wanted to change the __________ of his spectacles.

D. Can you please __________ this picture for me?

(a) build

(b) bend

(d) state

(e) draw

Q12. A. Despite being hardworking he could never __________ success in his career.

B. He is such a spoilsport that he cannot __________ a joke against himself.

C. This toothpaste has the __________ of mint.

D. The __________ of mango is relished by the young and old alike.

(a) taste

(b) flavour

(d) experience

(e) small

Q13. A. Akbar was known for his benevolence, people were happy during his __________.

B. Cleopatra has an ambition to __________ the world as a queen of beauty.

C. Better to __________ in hell than to serve in heaven.

D. One should not allow indolence to __________ over oneself.

(a) reign

(b) dominate

(d) tenure

(e) overpower

Q14. A. I do not __________ him as a brilliant performer.

B. The __________ of interest offered by Nationalized banks is very low.

C. At any __________ I shall see that you get over the crisis.

D. He rose from the __________ of a soldier to that of a commissioned officer.

(a) rank

(b) cost

(d) value

(e) see

Q15. A. The __________ accused in the murder, was sentenced to death.

B. __________ time soap operas on the television charge exorbitant rates from advertisers.

C. Abolition of illiteracy should be the __________ concern of every state government.

D. The office of the Vice chancellor is in the __________ building of the University.

(a) mainly

(b) prime

(d) chief

(e) only

EDUMAN SUCCESS

Saturday, 22 April 2017

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